MCQ Human Health and Disease

 HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE #2 

101: A disease characterised by burning sensation during urination and pain around genitalia is 

(1) Syphilis        (2) Gonorrhoeae 

(3) Trachoma    (4)  Mumps 

Answers (2) 

102:Vaccine against polio was first prepared by 

(1) Dr. Salk 

(2) Dr. Har Govind Khurana 

(3) Edward Jenner 

(4) Dr. C.V. Raman. 

Answers (1) 

 103: ORV ( Oral Polio Vaccine) was prepared by 
(1) Louis Pasteur     (2) Robert Koch 

(3) Edward Jenner  (4)   Sabin and others 

Answers (4)

 104: A disease caused by one of the smallest known virus is  

(1) Mumps                (2) Measles 

(3) Poliomyelitis    ( 4) Trachoma  

Answers (3)

105:The disease recently eradicated from India is 
(1) Tuberculosis   (2) Malaria 

(3) Smallpox          (4) Measles

Answers (3) 

 106: The last recorded case  of small pox was of a British Photographer in 1978.His name is 

(1) Tomy                   (2) Phillips 

(3) Janet Parker      (4)  Johson 

Answers (3)

107 :  In which year WHO formally declared small pox to be extinct ?

(1) 1979    (2) 1980  (3) 1981  (4)  1970 

Answers (2)

108: A disease showing dew drop like pinkish eruptions later turning into scabs which do not leave any pox marks is 

(1) Measles         (2) Small pox 

(3)  Mumps       (4)  Chickenpox 

Answers (108)

 109:  A disease characterised by eruption of small red spots and inflammation of nasal mucous membrane is 

(1) Chickenpox    (2) Measles 

(3) Mumps         (4) Diphtheria 

Answers (2)


110:  A disease found mostly in children is 

(1) Malaria         (2) Amoebiasis 

(3) Measles      (4)  Measles  & chickenpox 

Answers (4)

111:  The disease spread by droplet infection is 

(1)  Measles         (2)   Rabies 

(3)  Cholera         (4)   Sleeping  sickness 

Answers (1)

112: The disease that may cause sterility due to infection spreading  to sex organs is 

(1) Measles                  (2) Syphilis 

(3) Gonorrhoeae         (4)  Mumps 

Answers (4) 

 113: Mumps is 

(1) Inflammation of tonsil 

(2) Inflammation  of parotid  salivary  glands 

(3) Inflection of skin 

(4) Cancer of cheeks .

Answers (2) 

 114:  Influenza is caused by 

(1) Mycobacterium      (2)  Neisseria 

(3) Myxovirus              (4)  Rubeola 

Answers (3) 

115:  Janudica affects 

(1) Brain                     (2)  Liver 

(3)  Kidney                (4) Heart 

Answers (2) 

116:  A  viral disease transmitted  through  the bite of a rabid ( mad)  dog is called 

(1) Hydrophobia     (2) Poliomyelitis 

(3) Variola                (4)  Epidemic Hepatitis 

Answers (1) 

117: A communicable disease, which if not controlled immediately, is 100% fatal is 

(1) Syphilis           (2)  Kala azar

(3)  Filariasis     (4)  Hydrophobic 

Answers (4) 

 118:  Symptoms  of  Rabies is / are 

(1) Diarrhoea       (2)  Nausia 

(3) Suffocation    (4) Fear of water 

Answers (4) 

119:  Quinine, an important  drug for treatment  of malaria, is extracted from 

(1) Calyx of Cinamon 

(2) Bark of Cinchona 

(3) Red  ants 

(4)  Bark of   tulsi 

Answers  (2)

120: Filaria  Malaria, Dangue fever, Sleeping  sickness, Yellow fever are transmitted by 

(1) Mosquitoes          (2) House filies 

(3)  Insects                 (4) Bacteria 

Answers  (3) 


121:  Who first observed Plasmodium in the red blood  cells  of a  malaria  patient?

(1) Edwards   Jenner   (2) Ronald Ross 

(3) Laveran Charles   (4)  Louis  Pasteur 

Answers (3) 

122: Which species of malarial parasite malignant causes Tertian  malaria in humans? 

(1) Plasmodium falciparum 

(2) Plasmodium vivax
 
(3)    Plasmodium ovale
 
(4)   Plasmodium malariae 

Answers (1) 

123: The schizont stage of Plasmodium in man occurs in

(1)  Red  blood cells only

(2)Blood and liver  cells 

(3) Liver, spleen  and blood cells 

(4)  Liver cells only.

Answers (2) 

124:  Which phase of the life_ cycle of malarial parasite, Plasmodium vivax occurs in the female Anopheles mosquito?

(1) Sexual              (2) Pre__erythrocytic 

(3) Erythrocytic    (4) Exoerythrocytic 

Answers (1) 

 125: The incubation period of malaria   caused by Plasmodium vivax is about 

(1) One week          (2)  one month 

(3) 8_ 10 week       (4)  15 days 

Answers (4) 

 126: The part of life _ cycle of Plasmodium  is mosquito was worked out by 

(1) Louis Pasteur       (2) Ronald Ross

(3) Charles    Darwin   (4)  Mendel 

Answers (2) 

127:  The infective  stage of Plasmodium injected  by mosquito into human blood is 

(1) Trophozoite      (2)  Sporozoite 

(3) Merozoite         (4)  Schizont 

Answers (2) 

128: Mild tertian  malaria  is caused by 

(1)  Plasmodium vivax 

(2) Plasmodium falciparum 

(3)  Plasmodium ovale 

(4)  Plasmodium  malariae.

Answers (3) 

 129:  The part of life _ cycle of Plasmodium in human blood is called 

(1) Schizogony            (2) Sporogony 

(3)   Pre_ erythrocytic Schizogony 

(4) Syngamy 

Answers (1) 

130 :  ' Mosquito day', when Sir Ronald Ross established mosquito _ malaria relationship, is 

(1) August 19, 1879 
 
(2) July  29 ,  1897

(3)  August  29, 1897 

(4) September  29, 1879.

Answers  (3) 

131: Cerebral malaria is caused by 

(1)   Plasmodium  vivax   (2) P. ovale 

(3) P. malariae        (4)   P. falciparum 

Answers (4) 

 132:  On which day, we celebrate Malaria Day? 

(1) 5th June           (2) 15th August 

(3) 20th August       (4) 20th September 

Answers (3)

133: Gambusia is 

(1)  disease of the liver 

(2) apest of hairs 

(3) a fish which is predator on mosquito larvae and is important in Bilogical control of malaria 

(4)  a drug which is used in malaria fever.

Answers (3)
 
134: Entamoeba  histoloytica is found in human 

(1) oral cavity                   (2)  stomach 

(3) small intestine 

(4) large intestine and lower part of small intestine.

Answers (4)

135:  Entamoeba histoloytica contains 

(1) food vacuoles  and one contractile  vacuole 

(2) one pseudopodium and one contractile vacuole

(3) two nuclei and no contractile vacuole 

(4) Food vacuoles and non contractile vacuole.

Answers (4)

136:  There is no immunization against 

(1) Typhoid            (2)   Measles 

(3) Small pox        (4)   Amoebiasis 

Answers (4)

137:   Which one of the following pair of specific names belongs to the same genus? 

(1) Histolytica and coli 

(2)  Histoloytica and proteus 

(3) Histolytica  and falciparum 

(4) Histoloytica and bancrofti  


Answers (1) 

138:  Entamoeba differ from Amoeba in lacking 

(1) nucleus                (2) food vacuoles 

(3) contractile vacuole   (4) pseudopodia 

Answers (3) 

139:  The cysts of ( Entamoeba histoloytica) are  characteristically 

(1) uninucleate with Schuffner's granules 

(2) binucleate with chromatoidal  bars 

(3) tetranucleate with chromatoidal bars 

(4) tetranucleate with Schuffner's granules 

Answers (3) 

140:  Entamoeba histoloytica was first discovered by 

(1) Losch             (2) Dobell 

(3) Lamble         (4)   Craig 

Answers (3)

141: Drugs such as Metronidazol and Tinidiazol are used against 

(1) Amoebiasis      (2)  Trypanosomiasis 

(3) Malaria           (4)  Typhoid 

Answers (1)

 142:  The disease caused by Entamoeba gingivalis is transmitted by 

(1) flies            (2) Kissing 

(3) using the same bowl 

(4) kissing and using the same bowl.

Answers (4) 

143: Entamoeba  gingivalis is a parasite in the 

(1) Human intestine 

(2) Human buccal cavity 

(3) Frog's  stomach  

(4) Frog's  blood 

Answers (2)

144:  A bite of tse _ tse  fly to man may transmit 

(1) Leishmania donovani
 
(2)  Trypanosoma gambiense 

(3) Plasmodium vivax 

(4) Entamoeba histoloytica 

Answers (2) 

145: Trypanosoma shows the phenomenon of 

(1) Amorphism       (2) Dimorphism 

(3) Trimorphism     (4) Polymorphism

Answers (4) 

146:  Indicate the correct statement  pertaining to Taehia solium.

(1) Male  organs are confined to posterior proglottides 

(2) Female organs are confined  to anterior proglottides 

(3) All mature proglottides contain both male and female organs 

(4)  Only  the anterior proglottides contain male organs while the ripe proglottides contain only uterus full of eggs.

Answers (3) 

147: Infection of Taenia solium occurs by 

(1) Taking undercooked  pork

(2) mosquito bites 

(3) Penetration through skin 

(4) contract with infected person.

Answers (1) 

 148:  Tapeworm is attached to the intestinal wall by means of 

(1) Strobila 

(2) Hooks and suckers present on scolex 

(3) rostellum alone 

(4) suckers alone 

Answers (2) 

149:  Schistosoma  is a parasite found in 

(1) Lungs               (2) Liver 

(3) intestine            (4) blood 

Answers (4)

150 : Indicate the correct answer pertaining  to Ascaris 

(1) Eggs of Ascaris containing second stage  juvenile larva when swallowed by man become infective 

(2) Snail acts as a second host of Ascaris 

(3) Once in the intestine,Ascaris larva develops directly into an adult without entering other organs of the host 

(4) A larval stage of Ascaris is swallowed by cattle, which in turn infect humans. 

Answers (1)

151: Chenopdium oil is used  in 

(1) Tuberculosis   (2) Typhoid 

(3) Ascariasis       (4)  Small pox 


Answers (3)

 152:  Infection of hookworm occurs by 

(1) boring through skin of feet 

(2) contaminated food 

(3) bites of Culex mosquito 

(4) droplets emitted by patient.

Answers (1)

153: Enterobiasis disease is caused by the parasite named 

(1) Filarial worm      (2) Hookworm 

(3)  Pinworm          (4) Tapeworm 

Answers (3) 

 154:  Filariasis (elephantiasis) is transmitted  by 
(1) Housefly            (2) Louse 

(3) Bedbug               (4) Mosquito  (Culex) 

Answers (4)

155:  Elephantiasis is caused by 

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides

(2) Tanenia solium 

(3) Wuchereria bancrofti 

(4) Ancylostoma  duodenale.

Answers (3)

 156:  The helminth parasite of man which inhabits the lymph vessels is 

(1) Ascaris           (2) Wuchereria 

(3) Enterobius        (4) Ancylostoma 

Answers (2)

157:  Filariasis is also known  as elephantiasis because of 

(1) infection from elephants 

(2)  elephants are secondary  host 

(3) Excessive enlargement  of body parts like legs 

(4) Excessive  enlargement  of teeth.


Answers (3) 

158 : Clinical investigations for worm infections is 

(1) Haemophilia          (2) Eosinophilia 

(3) Anaemia                    (4) None of these 

Answers (2) 

 159:  The normal blood sugar level after overnight fasting is 

(1) 40_ 80 mg %             (2) 80_ 120 mg %

(3)  120_ 160 mg %       (4)  160_ 200 mg % 

Answers (2) 

160: When the blood sugar level shoot very high in diabetic, which of the following chemicals is released in the urine ?

(1) Bile pigments            (2)  Ketone bodies 

(3) Urea                             (4) RBCs 

Answers (2)

 161: Repeated injection  of insulin at the same  site will produce 

(1) Bleeding  at the site 

(2) pus formation  

(3) Atrophy of fatty tissue 

(4) None of the above 

Answers (3) 

 162:  Insulin injections are given 

(1)  intramuscularly      (2) intravenously 

(3) intradermally          (4) Subcutaneously 

Answers (4)

163:  Diabetes is characterised  by

(1) Hypoglycemia 

(2) Hyperglycemia 

(3) hypogammaglobulinaemia 

(4) Hyperbilirubinaemia.

Answers (2)

164: A patient of diabetes mellitus  excretes glucose in the urine even when he is kept on carbohydrate free diet. The most likely  reasons for this is that

(1) Amino acids are catabolised in the urea and from sugar 

(2) Amino acids are discharges in the blood stream from liver 

(3) Fats are catabolised to form glucose 

(4) Glycogen from muscles is released into the blood stream 

Answers (3)

 165: A chemical that prevents blood clothing is most useful  in the treatment of 

(1) Leukaemia       (2)  Anaemia 

(3) Haemophilia   (4) Coronary  thrombosis 

Answers (4)

166:  In  Atherosclerosis 

(1)  the diameter of lumen of the veins becomes smaller 

(2) the diameter  of the lumen of the veins  becomes  larger 

(3) The diameter of the lumen of the arteries becomes smaller and cannot expand full

(4) the diameter  of the lumen of the arteries becomes larger .

Answers (3) 

167:  Myocardial infarction means damage to the 

(1) brain              (2) kidneys 

(3) heart             (4) lungs 

Answers (3) 

168:  Diseases of heart, joints and nervous system are called 

(1) communicable diseases 

(2) degenerative diseases 

(3) deficiency diseases 

(4) allergies 

Answers (2)

169:  The rheumatic heart disease ( RHD) is due to 

(1) narrowing  of coronary  arteries 

(2) hypertension  (persistent high blood pressure) 

(3)  defective atrioculoventricular valves 

(4) defective semilunar valves  

Answers (3) 

170:  Angina pectoris is disease in which one feels pain in chest below collar bones. It is due to 

(1) infection by a virus 

(2) Inadequate  supply of oxygen to the heart muscles 

(3) defective functioning of mitral valve 

(4) defective nutrition 

Answers (2) 

171: Stroke is caused by 

(1) Blood of cerebral  artery 

(2) rupture of cerebral artery 

(3) both (1) and (2) 

(4)none of the above 

Answers (3) 

 172:  Goul  is the result of accumulation of 

(1) urease in synovial  joints 

(2) uric acid in synovial  joints 

(3) calcium  oxalate in synovial  joints 

(4) uric acid and calcium  oxalate in synovial joints. 

Answers (2) 

173:  Infammation of synovial  membrane produces 

(1) Rheumatid  arthritis  (2) Osteoarthritis 

(3) Gout                              (4) Dislocation 

Answers (1)

174:  In Osteoarthritis the 

(1) articular cartilages erode in synovial joints 

(2) ends of bones are damaged 

(3) inflammation  of synovial membrane occurs 

(4) accumulation of uric  acid takes place in the synovial  fluid. 

Answers (1) 

175:  Cancer is related to 

(1) uncontrolled  growth of tissues 

(2) non__ malignant  tumor

(3) controlled division of tissues 

(4) none of the above 

Answers (1)

176: Cancerous cells spread through 

(1) Blood 

(2) lymph 

(3) secondary growths of malignant tumour 

(4) all the above 

Answers (4) 

177:  A localised tumour covered by connective  tissue is called 

(1) Metastasis            (2) Malignant tumour

(3) Benign  tumour    (4) Neoplasm 

Answers (3)

178:  Leukemia is a cancer of 

(1) liver                           (2) spleen 

(3) brain                         (4) blood 

Answers (4)

179:  The genes  which on activation produce malignant  neoplasm are  

(1) Pleiotropic genes    (2)  multiple genes 

(3) oncogenes              (4) neonatal  genes 

Answers (3)

180:  The major form of cancer in Indian  women is 

(1) breast cancer 

(2)  throat and mouth cancer 

(3) uterine _ cervical cancer 

(4) stomach  cancer 


Answers (3)

 181:  The major form of cancer in Indian men is 

(1) lung cancer 

(2) mouth and throat cancer 

(3) stomach cancer 

(4) bone cancer  

Answers (2)

182:  Bone cancer  belongs to the category of 

(1) Carcinoma                          (2) Sodium

(3) Malignant Lymphoma    (4) Leukemia 

Answers (2)

  183:  Which  is a source  for cancer treatment  in many hospitals  of India ? 

(1) Iodine               (2) Sodium 

(3) Cabalt _ 60      (4) Iron 

Answers (3)

184: Sarcoma is cancer of 

(1) Epithelial tissue 

(2) mesodermal tissue 

(3) blood 

(4) endodermal tissues 

Answers (2)

185:  Huntington's  chorea is 

(1) common in Korea 

(2)  nervous degeneration causing Involuntary shaking of legs, arms and head 

(3) disease of Kidney 

(4) related  to  diabetes 

Answers (2)

186: Secondary host  of Taenia solium is 

(1) Crow                       (2) Pig 

(3) Sheep                       (4) Human 

Answers (2)

187: Which is not a water borne disease?

(1) Asthma              (2) Cholera 

(3) Amoebiasis      (4) Typhoid 

Answers (1)

188: Which state  of  Plasmodium is infective for mosquito?

(1) Trophozoite         (2) Gametocyte 

(3) ookinete               (4) sporozoite 

Answers (2)

 189: Spread of cancerous cells to distant places is 

(1) malignancy     (2) metastasis 

(3) mutations     (4) benign tumour 

Answers (2)

 190: Glioma is the cancer of 

(1) pigment cells of skin 

(2) muscular   tissue 

(3) glial  cells of CNS 

(4) lymphatic tissue  

Answers (3)

 191: Fever, delirium, slow pulse, abdominal tenderness and rose coloured rash indicate the disease 

(1) Typhoid              (2) Measles 

(3) Tetanus               (4) Chicken  pox 

Answers (1)

 192:  Arbovirus (transmitted by arthropods) causes 

(1) Malaria              (2) Dengue 

(3) Filariasis          (4)  Amoebiasis 

Answers (2)

 193:  Import cancer worming  sign is 

(1)  fever                  (2)    coughing 

(3) mole enlarges , bleeds or itches 

(4) headache 

Answers(3)

194:  Cancer ( disease ) derived its name from the Greek word for 

(1) Octopus      (2) Crab 

(3) Sepia          (4) Hydra 

Answers (2)

195: Cancer of stomach is the common cancer in 
(1) Male                   (2) Female 

(3) both male and female 

(4) People of developing  countries 

Answers (3)

 196: Vincristin and Vinblastin are anti_ cancer  drugs which are usually  used in the treatment of 

(1) Carcinomas        (2) sarcomas 

(3) leukaemias        (4) Adenoma 

Answers (3)

 197: HIV was identified  by Lue Montagnier in 1983 who belongs  to 

(1) Russia                             (2) USA 

(3) France                          (4) England 

Answers (3)

198: HIV Consists of a  core RNA  with reverse transcriptase surrounded by a protein 

(1) Fibrinogen                       (2) ossein 

(3) Glycoprotein                   (4) chondrin 

Answers (3)

 199:  Symptoms of ARC ( AIDS  Related  Complex ) are

(1) Swollen  lymph  nodes 

(2)  fever 

(3)  night sweats and weightloss

(4) all of the above 

Answers (4)


200:  HIV antibodies can be  detected by the ELISA Test ( enzyme _ linked immunosorbent assay). However, a positive ELISA should be confirmed using another test called the 

(1)1South Blotting  Test 

(2) Northern Blotting  Test 

(3) Western Blotting  Test 

(4)  (1) and (2) 

Answers (3)

201 : When new born children are without T_ cells and B_ cells, the disease is called 

   (1) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome ( AIDS) 

  (2) Severe Combined Immune Deficiency ( SCID) 

 (3) Schuzophrenia 

 (4) Chancroid 

Answers (2) 

 202 :  HIV is 

     (1)   Rhabdovirus        (2) Retrovius 

      (3) Arbovirus              (4) Enterovirus 

Answers (2) 
 
203:  Virus of AIDS  is transmitted by 
        
  (1) Water                (2) Wind
 
   (3) soil                    (4)  blood and semen 

Answers (4) 

 204:  Incubation period of AIDS ranges between 

    (1) 2 months to  3 years 

  (2)  4 months  to  5 years  

 (3)  7 months   to 2 years 

(4)   6 months   to 10 years 

Answers (4) 

205:  AIDS infection were detected in India for the first time in prostitutes of 

(1) Kolkata           (2) Chennal 

(3)  Mumbai         (4) Bhopal 

Answers (2) 

 206: Use of Kangri by Kashmiris causes ...... cancer 

       (1) oral                            (2)  lung 
       (3) abdominal  skin      (4) pancreas 

Answers (3) 

 207: Which one of the following  causes  prostate cancer ? 

(1) Aflatoxin          (2)  Cadmium  oxide 

(3) Mustard gas     (4)  Soot 

Answers (2) 

208:  False sensory perceptions in   the absence of any external  stimulus  is called 

(1) hallucination       (2)  illusion 

 (3) delusion               (4)  confabulation 

Answers (1) 

209: Fixed false beliefs that are maintained  despite objective evidence to the contrary  is called as 

(1) illusion              (2) delusion 

(3) endogenous depression 

(4) anxiety  

Answers (2) 

 210 :  Withdrawal of which of the following drug  is associated  with  life  threatening syndrome ?

  (1)   Amphetamine          (2) Barbiturates 

  (3) Opioids                         (4) Diazepam 

Answers (2) 

211: Hypothyroidism  is most commonly associated with 

   (1)  mania                      (2)  phobia 

   (3)  depression              (4)  Paranoia 

Answers (3) 

 212:  During   which  age range is the hospital first admission rate for schizophrenia the highest ?

(1) 15__ 25 years        (2)   25___ 34 years 

(3)  35__ 55 years      (4)   45__ 55  years 

Answers (2) 

 213:  All are  hallucinogenic except 

(1) Cocaine                (2)    Mescaline 

(3) Amphetamine    (4)   LSD


Answers (3) 

214:  Tetrahydrocannabinol is  the  effective ingredient in 

(1) Cocaine                    (2) Marijuana 

(3) Opium                       (4)  Heroin  

Answers (2) 

215: Schizophrenia like picture  is  a side effect of 

(1) Morphine             (2) Amphetamine 

(3) Phenobarbitone   (4)  Fortwin 

Answers (2) 

 216: Lithium  is used  in  psychiatry  to treat 

(1) hysteria              (2) phobia 

(3) mood  disorders 

(4) actue organic  brain  syndrome 

Answers (3) 
 
217: Which  of  the  following  is most well known synthetic  teratogen 

(1)  Thalidomide       (2) Psilocin 

(3) Psilocybin             (4) Mescaline 

Answers (1)

 218: Psilocybin is obtained from 
   
 (1)  Bacteria               (2) Virus 
 
 (3)   Mushroom           (4) Poppy seeds

Answers (3) 


 219:  One of the following  causes  harmful effects on foetus .

(1)  Diazepam        (2) Teratogens 

(3)  Cocanine         (4)  Caffeine 

Answers (2) 

220:  One  of  the  following  is used in  the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

(1) Aspirin            (2) Pyrilamine 

(3)  Opium             (4) Doxylamine 


Answers (1) 

221:  The drug  that causes chronic psychosis and severe damage  to CNS is 

(1) Hashish                  (2)  Charas 

(3)   Marijuana           (4)  LSD 

Answers (4) 

 222:  A useful  drug  that damages  gastric mucosa if taken alongwith alcohol is 

(1)   Valium                  (2)  anthistamine 

(3)   Aspirin                   (4)  Morphine 

Answers (3) 

223: Cannabis sativa  (Hemp plant ) yields 

(1)  Bhang                  (2)  Charas 

(3)  Ganja                   (4)  All  the above 

Answers (4) 

 224:  Foetal abnormalities are caused  by

(1)  Nicotine               (2)  Alcohol 

(3)  LSD                      (4)  Opium 

Answers (3) 

 225: The drugs which relieve intense pain are

(1) Sedatives              (2)  Opiates 

(3)  Stimulants         (4)  Hallucinogens 

Answers (2)  

 226: Sedatives  differ from Tranquillisers in that 

(1) Sedatives   induce sleep while tranquillisers do not so 

(2) Sedatives depress brain  activity  while Tranquilliers  activate  brain  functioning 

(3) Sedatives are strong tranquillisers

(4)  sedatives   cause  addiction while  tranquillisers do not  produce  such an effect. 

Answers (1) 

 227: Drugs which do not  develop physiological dependence are 

(1) Opiates           (2)  Sedatives 

(3) Stimulants    (4)  Hallucinogens. 

Answers (3) 

228: The  drug often  used  for  reducing appetite is 

(1) LSD              (2)  Heroin 

(3)  Valium       (4) Amphetamine 

Answers (4) 

 229:  Cocaine  is  derived  from 

(1) Erythroxylon     cocca 

(2)   Theobroma  cacao 

(3) Coffea     arabica        (4) Thea  sinensis 

Answers (1) 

230: Which  is  a synthetic    stimulant?

(1) Cocaine           (2) Amphetamine 

(3) LSD                         (4) Mascaline 

Answers (2) 

 231: The stimulant present in Tea, Coca  and Cola drinks is 

(1) Cocaine           (2) Tannin 

(3) Alcohol           (4) Barbiturates 

Answers (4) 

 232:  The most highly addictive of the drugs is  

(1) Heroin                (2) LSD

(3) Alcohol                  (4) Barbiturates 

Answers (1)  

233:  The natural source of " heroin " is 

(1) Cannabis sativa 

(2) papaver somniferum 

(3) Lophophora     williamsis 

(4) Claviceps  purpurea .

Answers (2) 

234: Delta _ 9_ THC is an active ingredient of 

(1) Tobacco        (2) Poppy  plant 

(3) Marijuana      (4) Morphine 

Answers (3) 

235:  One of the following   has been provided a good  tool for de_ addiction  of marijuana 

(1)  Methadone       (2) Vitamin C.

(3) Vitamin K       (4)  CO2

Answers (2) 

236:  Physical dependence is  another  name of  

(1) Mental  dependence 

(2)  psychological dependence 

(3) Psysiological  dependence 

(4) Pharmacological dependence 

Answers (3) 

237:  Smack  is  a by  product   during  the synthesis of 

(1) Codeine                   (2)  Heroin 

(3)  Diazepam             (4)  Morphine 

Answers (2) 

 238:  Maijuana, Ganja  and LSD are 

(1) Narcotics       (2) Hallucinogens 

(3)  Stimulants     (4) All  the   above 

Answers (2) 


239:  LSD  is  formed from 

(1)  Cannabis        (2)  Claviceps 

(3) Fusarium       (4)  Nostoc 

Answers (2) 

240:  Brown sugar is by product  of 

(1)  Barbiturate      (2) Heroin 

(3) LSD                      (4) Harshish 

Answers (2) 

 241:  Morphine  and  opium are got from 
(1) Cajanus   cajan 

(2) Cannabis sativa  

(3) Papaver somniferum 

(4) Rauwolfia serpentina 

Answers (3) 

242: Heroin in  got from plant of family 

(1) Leguminosae       (2) Papaveraceae 

(3)  Liliaceae             (4)   Solanaceae 

Answers (2) 

 243:  Drugs are taken in  for 

(1) cure of diseases 

(2) prevention of diseases 

(3) physical and mental welfare 

(4) mood alteration.

Answers (3) 

244: Pertussis can be distinguished from diphtheria by 

(1) loud crowing  inspiration

(2)  fever            (3)  yellow skin 

(4) mode of infection 

Answers (1) 

 245: Chagas' disease is caused by 

(1) Tryanosoma  gambiense 

(2) T. Cruzi 

(3) T. evansi            (4)  T. Brucei

Answers (2) 

246: Kala _ azar is caused by 

(1) Trypanosoma    (2) Leishmania 

(3) Trichomonas   (4) Balantidium 

Answers (2) 

 247:  Guinea worm lies mostly in the  

(1) Skin                    (2)  intestine 

(3) bile duct             (4) blood 

Answers (1) 

248:  Eye worm is  

(1)  Loa loa                (2)  Dracunculus 

(3)  Trichinella      (4)    Cyclops 

Answers (1) 

249:  Filarial worm remains in the 

(1) intestine       (2) lymph  channels 

(3)  RBC                (4)  brain 

Answers (2) 

250:  Which  of these is ovovviparous ?

(1) Ancylostoma       (2) Wuchereria 

(3) Taenia                   (4) Ascaris 


Answers (2) 

251: For the first six months  of  its life,   a  child depends on antibodies 

(1) received in  food 

(2)  obtained from its mother 
 
(3)  produced from its immune system cells 

(4) acquired from  the environment .

Answers (2) 
 
252:  Thalidomide,  a  nonbarbiturate sedative drug given  to pregnant  women, was withdrawn in 1961 because it  resulted in phocomelia or 

(1) early abortion 

(2) limb  defect

(3) erythroblastosis foetalis 

(4) poor development of foetus. 

Answers (2) 

253: The  heavy drinkers are often dehydrated due to 

(1) lack  of metabolism

(2) hypersecretion  of ADH 

(3) hyposecretion   of ADH 

(4) none  of the above .

Answers (3) 

 254:  Pathogens reaching  the alimentary  canal   along with  food are destroyed by 

(1) mastication      (2) bile 

(3) digestion          (4) HCI 

Answers (4) 

255: Those Phagocytes  found in  the  tissues but not in  the blood  stream are 

(1) macrophages     (2) plasma cells 

(3)  neutrophils     (4) monocytes 

Answers (1) 

 256:  Monocytes and neutrophils are important cells participating in 

(1) perform production 

(2) Phagocytosis 

(3) passive immunity 

(4) antibody  production 

Answers (2) 

257: Active immunity is obtained by 

(1) natural resistance   (2)  antibiotics 

(3) weakened germs  infection 

(4) none  of the above 

Answers (3) 

 258:  Opsonisation  is  carried out by 

(1) Igm                                (2) IgA 

(3) IgD                                  (4)  IgG


Answers (4) 

259:  Cytotoxic T cells are known for their ability to unite with 

(1) Human  tissues cells 

(2)  bacteria and viruses 

(3) cells of fungi and protozoa 

(4) small molecules known as epitopes. 

Answers (3) 

260:  Helper T cells 

(1)  produce lymphokines 

(2) attack other  T cells 

(3)  suppress immune reaction 

(4) attack and  destroy antigen .

Answers (1) 

261:  Memory cells are stored in 

(1) kidney                   (2) heart 

(3) brain                      (4) spleen 

Answers (4) 

 262: What is true about  T_ lymphocytes in mammals?

(1) There are three main   types __ cytotoxic T_ cells, helper T_ cells and  suppressor T_  cells.

(2)  These originate in lymphoid tissues. 

(3) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris. 

(4) These are  produced in thyroid .

Answers (1) 

 263: Which of the following cells are most numerous?

(1)  Helper T cells     (2) Killer  T cells 

(3)  Cytotoxic  cells   (4) Memory cells 


Answers (1) 

264:   Among the organs of the body that are rick  in mature T  cells and B cells are the 

(1) liver and gallbladder 

(2) brain and spinal cord 

(3)  small and  large intestine 

(4)  spleen and lymph nodes 


Answers (4) 

265:  T cells are responsible for 

(1) cellular immunity 

(2) humoral immunity 

(3)  both of these              (4) none of these 

Answers (1) 

266: Which of the following cell guard  against the overproduction of antibodies?

(1) Helper T cells           (2) Suppressor T cells 

(3) Cytotoxic T cells           (4)  None of these 


Answers (2) 

 267: Allergic  rhinitis is known as 

(1) asthma                   (2) hay  fever 

(3) scarlet fever       (4) typhoid fever 

Answers (2) 

 268:  Hay fever is usually caused by 

(1) carbon monoxide    (2) pollens 

(3)  pain fumes              (4) all of these 


Answers (2) 

269: Allergic reaction develop in response to 

(1) serotonin           (2)  heparin 

(3) histamine           (4)  hirudin 

Answers (3) 

270:  A large amount of histamine is released into blood stream by 

(1) mast cells         (2) B cells 

(3) T cells                 (4)  all of these 

Answers (1) 

271: Which  of the antibody is concerned with allergic reactions?

(1) IgE          (2) IgG     (3) IgM      (4) IgA


Answers (1) 

272:  Antihistamine pills  are to nullify 

(1) allergic reaction      (2) malaria 

(3) typhoid                     (4) none of these 


Answers (1) 

273:  Anaphylactic shock is  a

(1) mild form  of allergy 

(2) severe form of allergy 

(3) non_ allergic   reaction

(4)  none of the above 

Answers (2) 

274:  Anaphylactic shock is treated with the drug 

(1) antihistamine    (2) thyroxine 

(3) epinephrine      (4) streptomycin 

Answers (3) 

275: The agents which cause allergy are known as 

(1) analgesics          (2)  allergens 

(3)  narcotics           (4)  antigens 

Answers (2) 

276: Allergens are 

(1) certain microbes which are pathogenic 

(2) weak antibodies produced by certain substances in the body 

(3) weak antigens which produce sensitive reactions in the body 

(4)  none of the above 

Answers (3) 

277: Any substance that causes a rise in body temperature is called 

(1) allergen            (2) pathogen 

(3) pyrogen              (4) all of these 

Answers (3) 

278:  Pyrogens are secreted by 

(1) plants           (2) useful bacteria 

(3) pathogens   (4)  none of  these 

Answers (3) 

279: Artificial immunity can be acquired from a 

(1) vaccination           (2)  serious illness 

(3) penicillin                 (4)  all of these 

Answers (1) 

280:  Vaccination against smallpox means the  introducting into  our body  of 

(1) antibodies 

(2)  leucocytes obtained from animals 

(3) actual weakened germs 

(4) antibodies produced in  other animals. 

Answers (3) 

 281: Which cells of immune system causes pore formation at  the surface of the plasma membrane?

(1)  Helper T _ cell       (2)  Killer T _ cell 

(3)  Suppressor T_ cell   (4)  B_ cell 

Answers (2) 

282:  Active immunity  means

(1) resistance developed before disease 

(2) resistance of  body built after disease 

(3) increasing rate of heart beat 

(4) increasing  quantity of blood .

Answers (2) 

283: Which of the following is an autoimmune disease ? 

(1) Cholera            (2)  Rheumatic fever 

(3)  Typhoid  fever  (4)  Malaria 


Answers (2) 

284:  Passive immunity is defined as immunity 

(1)  inherited from the parents 

(2) achieved throug vaccination 

(3) acquired through first exposure to the disease 

(4) achieved through the sera of other animals enriched in antibodies 

Answers (4) 

 285:  When body cannot differentiate between its own  and  foreign matter it is 

(1) passive immunity 

(2) active immunity 

(3) autoimmunity 

(4) immunodeficiency 

Answers (3) 

286: If  a person   shows  production of interferons in his body,  the  chances are that he has got an infection of 

(1) typhoid                   (2) Measles 

(3)  tetanus                (4)  malaria   

Answers (2) 

 287: It is not immunity related disease. 

(1) AIDS                      (2) polio 

(3)  cancer                     (4)  small  pox 

Answers (3) 

288: Parkinson's disease is caused due to deficiency of 

(1)  GABA                      (2)   endorphins 

(3) dopamines            (4)  acetylcholine 

Answers (3) 

289: Pick up the set of bacterial diseases 

(1) tetanus,  typhoid, tuberculosis 

(2) small pox, influenza, tetanus 

(3) meningitis, measles, syphilis 

(4) none of the above. 


Answers (1) 

290: Interferon suppresses the pathogenic activity of 

(1) bacteria               (2) virus 

(3)Protozoa              (4) helminths


Answers(2) 

 291: In birds the  B_ lymphocytes mature  in 

(1) thyroid  gland    (2) bone marrow 

(3) preen gland      (4) bursa is fabricius 


Answers (4)

292: Acquired Immune Deficiency syndrome is 

(1) characterized by a reduction in the number of killer T _ cells 

(2)  an   autoimmune disease 

(3) characterized by a reduction in the number of helper T __cells

(4)   the  result of the inability of the body to produce interferons. 

Answers (3) 

 293: Antiserum is rich in 

(1) steroids            (2) antibodies 

(3) antigens        (4) RBC

Answers (2) 

294: Which of the following  is involved in defence mechanism of the body?


(1) Lymphocytes   (2) Neutrophills

(3) Macrophages  (4) All  of these 

Answers (4) 

295: Branch of medicine studying the mode of transmission and control of disease is 

(1) epidemiology        (2)  parasitology 

(3)  gerontology         (4)  etiology 

Answers (1) 

296: Study of the cause of a disease is known as 

(1) pathology                     (2) etiology 

(3) ethology                      (4)  zymology

Answers (2) 

297: Yersinia  causes 

(1) plague          (2)  whophing  cough

(3) leprosy         (4) syphilis 


Answers (1) 

298:  Rickettsias are 

(1)  viruses          (2) bacteria 

(3) intermediate forms between viruses and bacterial cells 

(4) bacterial and  plant  cell.

Answers (3) 

299:  Diphtheria is associated with the following organ 

(1) blood                 (2)  liver 

(3) pharynx           (4) lungs 

Answers  (3)

300 :  Which of the following disease is not caused by polluted water?

(1) Dysentry            (2)  Jaundice 

(3)  Typhoid             (4)  Tuberculosis 

Answer (4) 


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